Are you or someone you know grappling with unexplained pain, fatigue, or strange sensations like numbness? If so, you might be familiar with fibromyalgia and paresthesia—two often misunderstood conditions that can disrupt daily life. This article dives deep into what fibromyalgia really is, how it intertwines with paresthesia, and why understanding these conditions is crucial...

Find out what is causing the tingling in your hands and feet and when you should talk to the experts at UnityPoint Health Trinity!

earliest sign of compartment syndrome Paresthesia

Rare fibromyalgia symptoms include sensitivity to touch, paresthesia, and more. Learn expert-backed coping strategies.

Pain with Thoracic Outlet Syndrome often presents anywhere between the neck, face, and shoulder with paresthesia into the upper extremity.

Beta-alanine in pre-workout causes an itching sensation in the face, neck, and hands that usually lasts 30-to-60 minutes. Technically, it's called paresthesia.

A doctor explains what causes paresthesia, or that tingling pins-and-needles feeling in your feet, hands, legs or other body parts, and when to get medical help.

Clinical Signs, Prognosis - Distal paresthesia gradually extending centrally, followed by vomiting, diarrhea, paralysis, intense pain, hypothermia, dyspnea, arrhythmias, hypotension, collapse, respiratory paralysis, cardiac failure. Toxins, Plant Parts, Lethal Doses - Protoveratrines A and B (tetraesters), jerveratrum (furanopiperidines); steroidal alkaloids; sodium channel activators.

Notalgia paresthetica is a frequently overlooked cause of interscapular itching and paresthesia. Fortunately, this common complaint responds quite favorably to chiropractic management. This blog and video provide a quick synopsis of the essentials you’ll need to become the provider of choice for managing notalgia paresthetica.

⚠️ Symptoms: Remember the 6 P’s!
🟥 Pain – Usually on passive stretch (early sign)
🟨 Pallor – Paleness in the extremity
🟩 Paresthesia – Tingling/numbness in the affected area
🟦 Paralysis – Loss of movement
🟪 Poikilothermia – Area abnormally cool to touch
⬛ Pulselessness – Absence of a peripheral pulse (late sign) 🚨

Facial tingling can feel like a prickly, crawling sensation under your skin. It can affect your whole face or just one side. These sensations are a sign of a condition called paresthesia. We’ll explore seven possible causes of facial tingling and the symptoms for each. We’ll also tell you when to see your doctor.

#panicattacks A strong panic or anxiety attack with accompanying physical symptoms that is predicated on an imagined threat rather than a present risk. Symptoms of Panic Attack :- 1. Chest pain 2. Suffocation 3. Nausea 4. Increased Sweating 5. Fear 6. Dizziness 7. Paresthesia 8. Palpitations It is as serious illness which should not be taken lightly. Contact One of the Best Psychiatrist Doctor

Sensory neurologic deficits include: Hyperesthesias (increased pain, touch, or vibration); Hypalgesia (decreased sensitivity to painful stimuli); Paresthesia (abnormal sensation of the skin like tingling, pricking, chilling, burning, numbness); Anesthesia (complete loss of pain, temperature, touch, and vibration sense). Sensory and Motor Neurologic Deficits can result from disease occurring anywhere along the pathway from the skin or muscle to the brain and back.

Disability isn't always constant or visible. Have you heard of the term Dynamic Disability? Many disabilities are unpredictable and ever-changing. One day, your body tingles from paresthesia, making it hard to feel anything. The next, it fades or during a migraine aura, you lose your vision temporarily, but it eventually returns. These fluctuations are still disabilities. Many neurological conditions involve dynamic disabilities, and there's no shame in identifying as disabled.

✨Save these simplified anemia nursing school notes & NCLEX review✨ NCLEX TIPS: ➡️ Brittle, spoon-shaped nails: classic sign of iron deficiency anemia ➡️ Iron supplement pt education: take w/ vit c, avoid milk/antacids, black stool is normal ➡️ Pernicious anemia: pt can’t absorb PO vit b12, only treatment is vit b12 injections ➡️ Vit B12 deficiency common sx: paresthesia (tingling sensation in extremities), smooth beefy red tongue 👅, & gait impairment Anemia nursing school notes bundle on Etsy ❤️‍

om of cauda equina compression? a. gastrocnemius weakness b. reduced or absent ankle refles c. numbness of the lateral foot d. paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks Correct answer- d. paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks The patient has acute pancreatitis with 7 of the diagnostic criteria from Ranson's Criteria. In order to plan care, the clinician understands that this criteria score has which of the following meanings? a. a high mortality rate b. an increased chance of recurrence c. 7% chance of the disease becoming chronic d. all of the above Correct answer- a. a high mortality rate Reuben, age 24, has HIV and just had a routine viral load test done. The results show a falling viral load What does this indicate a. a favorable diagnostic trend b. disease progression c. the need to be more aggressive with Reuben's medications d. the eradication of the HIV Correct answer- a. a favorable diagnostic trend Which is the differentiating symptom mbetween labyrinthitis and vestibular neuritis? a. symptoms with vestibular neuritis are usually acute in onset, whereas with labyrinthitis the onet is more gradual b. hearing loss may be associated with vestibular neuritis, but not with labyrinthitis c. symptoms with labyrinthitis are usually acute in onset, ,whereas with vesticular neuritis the onset is more gradual d. hearing loss may be associated with labyrinthitis ,but not with vestibular neuritis. Correct answer- d. hearing loss may be associated with labyrinthitis ,but not with vestibular neuritis. A 27 year old female presents with a chief complaint of burning and pain on urination. She has no previous history of urinary tract infection. what are some additional symptoms consistant with a diagnosis of lower UTI? a. back and abdominal pain b. fever, chills, costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness c. blood in urine and frequency d. foul-smelling discharge, perineal itch Correct answer- c. blood in urine and frequency The differential diagnosis for vertigo can be classified into which of the following categories: a. peripheral vestibular disease b. CNS disorders c. Systemic disorders d. all of the above Correct answer- d. all of the above Sam is a 25-year-old man who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc? a. morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine b. unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain c. Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate d. pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss and fatigue Correct answer- b. unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain Preceptors must always see the patients that the students see in the clinical setting a. true b. false Correct answer- a. true An 82 year old man is seen in the primary care office with complaints of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his stream. Which of the following should be included in the list of differentials? a. BPH b. Prostate cancer c. UTI d. all of the above Correct answer- d. all of the above Which causes the greatest percentage of mammalian bites? a. dogs b. cats c. humans d. rodents Correct answer- a. dogs Endoscopic report reveals the presents of Barrett's epithelium. Which of the following information should the clinician include in the explaination of the pathology report? a. this is a premalignant tissue b. this tissue is resistant to gastric acid c. this tissue supports healing of the esophagus d. all of the above Correct answer- d. all of the above Which of the following data are indicative of testicular torsion? a. absent cremasteric reflux b. pain relived on testicular elevation c. testicle very low in the scrotum d. swollen scrotum with a red dot sign Correct answer- a. absent cremasteric reflux Most nosocomial pneumonias are caused by: a. Fungi. b. Viruses c. Gram-negative bacteria. d. Pneumococcal pneumonia. Correct answer- c. Gram-negative bacteria. A family practice office for all 5 of your clinical rotations will guarantee that you will gain the required pediatric exposure a. true b. false Correct answer- b. false The most common precancerous skin lesion found in Caucasians is a. skin tags b. actinic keratosis c. melanoma d. basal skin lesion Correct answer- b. actinic keratosis Which obstructive lung disease is classified as reversible? a. Asthma b. Chronic bronchitis c. Emphysema d. COPD Correct answer- a. Asthma Which of the following is an example of an articular structure a. bone b. synovium c. tendons d. fascia Correct answer- b. synovium Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation? a. posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations b. there is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses Correct answer- b. there is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses Which of the following statements is true concerning the management of the client with a herniated disc? a. muscle relaxants and narcotics can be used to control moderate pain but should be discontinued after 3 weeks of use b. an epidural injection is helpful in reducing leg pain that has persisted for at least 3 weeks after the herniation occurred. c. intolerable pain for more than 3 months is an indication for surgical intervention d. all of the above Correct answer- c. intolerable pain for more than 3 months is an indication for surgical intervention After 6 months of synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies? a. elevated TSH b. normal TSH c. low TSH d. undetectable TSH Correct answer- b. normal TSH The clinician suspects that a client seen in the office has hyperthyroidism. Which of the following tests should the clinician order on the initial visit? a. thryoid stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4 b. TSH and thyrotoxin antibodies •High sensitivity thyroid stimulating hormone TSH and free T4 • Free T4 and serum calcium Correct answer- a. thryoid stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4 Cat bites are commonly associated with which of the following pathogens? a. pasteurella multocida b. vibri vulnificus c. group B streptococcus d. Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus Correct answer- a. pasteurella multocida The 56 year old man with chronic prostatitis should be treated with trimethoprim 80mg-sulfamethoxazole 400 (TMP-SMX, Bactrim) for how long? a. 3-7 days b. 14-21 days c. 3-6 weeks d 6-12 weeks Correct answer- d 6-12 weeks The A in SNAPPS stands for Assessment a. true b. false Correct answer- b. false A patient is diagnosed with Giardia after backpacking trip in the mountains. Which of the following would be the appropriate treatement? a. Vancomycin b. Penicillin c. Metronidazole d. Bactrim Correct answer- c. Metronidazole The most cost effective screening test to determine HIV status is which of the following? a. western blot b. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) c. venereal disease research laboratory test (VDRL) d. Viral load Correct answer- b. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds (:BMI 29.3). How would the clinician classify this patient? a. overweight b. Mild Obesity c. Moderate Obesity d. morbid obesity Correct answer- b. Mild Obesity One of the initial steps in assessing patients with musculoskeletal complaints is to determine whether the complaint is articular or nonarticular in origin. Which of the following is an example of an articular srtucture? A. Fascia B. Bone C. Synovium D. Tendons Correct answer- C. Synovium Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation? a. posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations b. there is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses Correct answer- b. there is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses Which of the following types of cellulitis is a streptococcal infection of the superficial layers of the skin which does not involve the subcutaneous layers? a. necrotizing fascitis b. periorbital cellulitis c. erysipelas d. flesh eating bacteria Correct answer- c. erysipelas A 76 year old man is seen in the office for complaints of urinary incontinence. The clinican should suspect which of these causes of incontinence in men? a. urethral polyps b,. urinary tract infection (UTI) c. anticholinergic medications d. all of the above Correct answer- d. all of the above Sally, aged 25, presents with impetigo that has been diagnosed as infected with staphylococcus. The clinical presentation is pruritic tender, red vesicles surrounded by erythema with a rash that is ulcerating. She has not been adequately treated recently. Which type of impetigo is this? a. Bullous impetigo b. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS) c. Nonbullous impetigo d. Ecthyma Correct answer- d. Ecthyma A 42 year old woman is seen in the clinic with fever, chills, vomiting and severe dysuria. She is diagnosed with acute pyelonepritis. How should this patient be managed? a. 3 day course of oral antibiotics b. hospitalization Correct answer- b. hospitalization Which of the following are risk factors associated with obesity? a. diabetes b. skin infections c. arthritis d. all of the above Correct answer- d. all of the above Which of the following information is essential before prescribing Bactrim DS to a 24 year old woman witht urinary tract infection? a. last menstrual period b. method of birth control c. last unprotected sexual contact d. all of the above Correct answer- d. all of the above A 22 year old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle during a testicular self exam (TSE). which of the following shoud be included in the differential diagnosis. a. testicular cancer b.. inguinal hernia c. varicocele d. all of the above Correct answer- d. all of the above Which of the following dietary information should be given to a patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? a. eliminate coffee b. drink peppermint ice to relieve stomach distress c. recline and rest after meal d. limit the amount of antacids Correct answer- a. eliminate coffee Which of the following are predisposing factors for pyelonephritis? a. pregnancy d. dehydration c. smoking d. alkaline urine Correct answer- d. alkaline urine A patient is seen in the clinic with right upper quadrant pain (RUQ) that is radiating to the middle of the back. The clinical suspects acute cholelithasis. The clinician should expect with of the following laboratory findings? a. Decreased alanine anminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) b. elevated alkaline phosphatase c. elevated indirect biliruben d. decreased white blood cell (WBC) count Correct answer- b. elevated alkaline phosphatase A 25 year old patient presents to the clinic with fatigue, cold intolerance, weght gain and constipation for the past 3 months. On physical exam, the clinican notices a sinus bradycardia, muscular stiffness, coarse dry hair and a delay in relaxation in deep tendon reflexes (DTR's). Which of the following tests should be ordered next? a. Serum Calcium b. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) c. electrolytes d. urine specific gravity Download to view full exam with all the correct answers.

swer is: C) Advance Directives. This document specifies the client's wishes Question 2 You are the of a health care team that consists of one licensed practical/vocational nurse, one nursing assistant , a nursing student and yourself. To whom is it appropriate to assign complete care for A) Yourself B) The nursing student C) The licensed vocational nurse D) The nursing assistant Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Yourself. While the nurse may delegate a bed bath for a stable client, this care should be performed by an RN for a new admission. Only tasks that do not require independent judgment should be delegated. 3Question 3 A mother brings her the clinic, complaining that the child seems to be The nurse expects to find which of the following on the initial history and physical assessment? A) Increased temperature and lethargy B) Rash and restlessness C) Increased sleeping and listlessness D) Diarrhea and poor skin turgor Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Rash and restlessness. Question 4 As the nurse takes a history of a 3 year-old with neuroblastoma, what comments by the parents require follow-up and are consistent with the diagnosis? A) "The child has been listless and has lost weight." B) "Her urine is dark yellow and small in amounts." C) "Clothes are becoming tighter across her abdomen." D+) "We notice muscle weakness and some unsteadiness." Review Information: The correct answer is:C) "Clothes are becoming tighter across her abdomen.". One of the most common signs of neuroblastoma is increasing abdominal girth. The parents'' report that clothing is tight is significant, and should be followed by additional assessments. Question 5 A 16 year-old presents to the emergency department. The triage nurse finds that this teenager is legally married and signed the consent form for treatment. What would be the appropriate INITIAL action by the nurse? A) Refuse to see the client until a parent or legal guardian can be contacted B) Withhold treatment until telephone consent can be obtained from the spouse C) Refer the client to a community pediatric hospital emergency room D) Assess and treat in the same manner as any adult client Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Assess and treat in the same manner as any adult client. Minors may become known as an "emancipated minor" through marriage, pregnancy, high school graduation, independent living or service in the military. Therefore, this client, who is married, has the legal capacity of an adult. Question 6 A newly admitted elderly client is severely dehydrated. When planning care for this client, which one of the following is an appropriate task for an Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP)? A) Obtain a history of fluid loss B) Report output of less than 30 ml/hr C) Monitor response to IV fluids D) Check skin turgor every four hours Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Report output of less than 30 ml/hr. When directing a UAP, the nurse must communicate clearly about each delegated task with specific instructions on what must be reported. Because the RN is responsible for all care-related decisions,only implementation tasks should be assigned because they do not require independent judgment. Question 7 The nurse is assessing a 4 year-old for possible rheumatic fever. Which of the following would the nurse suspect is related to this diagnosis? A) Diagnosis of chickenpox six months ago B) Exposure to strep throat in daycare last month C) Treatment for ear infection two months ago D) Episode of fungal skin infection last week Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Exposure to strep throat in daycare last month. Evidence supports a strong relationship between infection with Group A streptococci and subsequent rheumatic fever (usually within 2-6 weeks). Therefore, the history of playmates recovering from strep throat would indicate that the child diagnosed with rheumatic fever most likely also had strep throat. Sometimes, such an infection has no clinical symptoms. Question 8 When the nurse becomes aware of feeling reluctant to interact with a manipulative client, the BEST action by the nurse is to A) Discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor B) Limit contacts with the client to avoid reinforcing the manipulative behavior C) Confront the client regarding the negative effects of his/her behavior on others D) Develop a behavior modification plan that will promote more functional behavior Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor. The nurse who is experiencing stress in the therapeutic relationship can gain objectivity through supervision. The nurse must attempt to discover attitudes and feelings in the self that influence the nurse-client relationship. Question 9 A client is being treated for paranoid schizophrenia. When the client became loud and boisterous, the nurse immediately placed him in seclusion as a precautionary measure. The client willingly complied. The nurse's action A) May result in charges of unlawful seclusion and restraint B) Leaves the nurse vulnerable for charges of assault and battery C) Was appropriate in view of the client's history of violence D) Was necessary to maintain the therapeutic milieu of the unit Review Information: The correct answer is:A) May result in charges of unlawful seclusion and restraint. Seclusion should only be used when there is an immediate threat of violence or threatening behavior. Question 10 A client has been admitted to the Coronary Care Unit with a Myocardial Infarction. Which of the following nursing diagnosis should have PRIORITY? A) Pain related to ischemia B) Risk for altered elimination: constipation C) Risk for complication: dysrhythmias D) Anxiety Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Pain related to ischemia. Pain is related to ischemia, and relief of pain will decrease myocardial oxygen demands, reduce blood pressure and heart rate and relieve anxiety. Pain also stimulates the sympathetic nervous system and increased preload, further increasing myocardial demands. Question 11 The nurse manager who is responsible for hiring professional nursing staff is required to comply with the Americans with Disabilities Act. The provisions of the law require the nurse manager to A) Maintain an environment free from hazards B) Provide reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals C) Make all necessary accommodations for disabled individuals D) Consider only physical disabilities in making employment decisions Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Provide reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals. The law is designed to permit persons with disabilities access to job opportunities. Employers must evaluate an applicant's ability to perform the job and not discriminate on the basis of a disability. Employers also must make "reasonable accommodations. Question 12 The mother of a school-aged child in a long leg cast asks the nurse how to relieve itching inside the cast. Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to suggest as a remedy? A) Scratching the outside of the cast vigorously, applying pressure over the area B) Blowing a hair dryer or heat lamp on the cast over the area that is itching C) Using a long, smooth piece of wood to gently scratch the affected area D) Applying an ice pack over the area of the cast that is affected Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Applying an ice pack over the area of the cast that is affected. Applying ice is a safe method of relieving the itching. Question 13 Which of the following BEST describes the application of time management strategies in the role of the nurse manager? A) Scheduling staff efficiently to cover client needs B) Assuming a fair share of the client care as a role model C) Setting daily goals to prioritize work D) Delegating tasks to reduce work load Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Setting daily goals to prioritize work. Time management strategies must include setting priorities and meeting goals. Question 14 The clinic nurse assesses a toddler with a tentative diagnosis of neuroblastoma. Symptoms the nurse observes that suggest this problem include A) Lymphedema and nerve palsy B) Hearing loss and ataxia C) Headaches and vomiting D) Abdominal mass and weakness Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Abdominal mass and weakness. Clinical manifestations of neuroblastoma include an irregular abdominal mass that crosses the midline, weakness, pallor, anorexia, weight loss and irritability. Question 15 A fifteen year-old client has been placed in a Milwaukee Brace. Which one of the following statements from the client indicates the need for additional teaching? A) "I will only have to wear this for six months." B) "I should inspect my skin daily." C) "The brace will be worn day and night." D) "I can take it off when I shower." Review Information: The correct answer is:A) "I will only have to wear this for six months.". The brace must be worn long-term, usually for 1-2 years. Question 16 The nurse manager has been using a decentralized block scheduling plan to staff the nursing unit. However, staff have asked for many changes and exceptions to the schedule over the past few months. The manager considers self-scheduling knowing that A) Quality of care will improve B) Staff turnover should decrease C) Flexible scheduling will occur D) Team morale will improve Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Team morale will improve. Nurses are more satisfied with autonomy and control. The nurse manager becomes the facilitator of scheduling rather than the decision-maker of the schedule. Question 17 A client is admitted to the emergency room following an acute asthma attack. Which of the following assessments would be expected by the nurse? A) Diffuse expiratory wheezing B) Loose, productive cough C) No relief from inhalant D) Fever and chills Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Diffuse expiratory wheezing. In asthma, the airways are narrowed - creating difficulty getting air in and a wheezing sound. Question 18 The nurse manager hears a physician loudly criticizing one of the staff nurses in the hearing of others. The employee does not respond to the physician's complaints. The nurse manager's FIRST action should be A) Walk up to the physician and quietly ask that this unacceptable behavior stop B) Allow the staff nurse to handle this situation without interference C) Notify the Nursing Director and Medical Staff Chief of a breech of professional conduct D) Request an immediate private meeting with the physician and staff nurse Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Request an immediate private meeting with the physician and staff nurse. Assertive communication respects the needs of all parties to express themselves, but not at the expense of others. The nurse manager needs first to protect clients and other staff from this display and come to the assistance of the nurse employee. Question 19 A client voluntarily admits herself to the hospital due to suicidal ideation. The client has been on the unit for two days and is now demanding to be released. The MOST appropriate action is for the nurse to A) Tell the client that she cannot be released because she is still suicidal B) Inform the client that she can be released only if she signs a no suicide contract C) Discuss with the client the decision to leave and prepare for her discharge D) Instruct her regarding her right to sign out upon receipt of the physician's discharge order Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Discuss with the client the decision to leave and prepare for her discharge. Clients voluntarily admitted to the hospital have a right to demand and obtain release. Discussing the decision allows opportunity for other interventions. Question 20 A client is admitted with infective endocarditis (IE). Which symptom would alert the nurse to a complication of this condition? A) Dyspnea B) Heart murmur C) Macular rash D) Hemorrhage Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Heart murmur. Large, soft, rapidly developing vegetations attach to the heart valves. They have a tendency to break off, causing emboli and leaving ulcerations on the valve leaflets. These emboli produce symptoms of cardiac murmur, fever, anorexia, malaise and neurologic sequelae of emboli. Furthermore, the vegetations may travel to various organs such as spleen, kidney, coronary artery, brain and lungs and obstruct blood flow. Question 21 A nurseadmits a premature infant who has respiratory distress syndrome. In planning care, nursing actions are based on the fact that the MOST likely cause of this problem stems from the infant's inability to A) Stabilize thermoregulation B) Maintain alveolar surface tension C) Begin normal pulmonary blood flow D) Regulate intracardiac pressure Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Maintain alveolar surface tension. Respiratory distress syndrome is primarily a disease related to developmental delay in lung maturation. Although many factors lead to the development of the problem, the central factor relates to the lack of a normally functioning surfactant system due to immaturity in lung development. Question 22 An 18 year-old client is admitted to intensive care from the emergency room following a diving accident. The injury is suspected to be at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebrae. The nurse's PRIORITY assessment should be A) Response to stimuli B) Bladder control C) Respiratory function D) Muscle weakness Review Information: The correct answer is: C) Respiratory function. Spinal injury at the C-2 level results in quadriplegia. While the client will experience all of the problems identified, respiratory assessment is a priority. Question 23 The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is CRITICAL for the nurse to include in the plan of care? A) Hourly urine output B) White blood count C) Blood glucose every four hours D) Temperature every two hours Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Hourly urine output. Clients who have had an episode of decreased glomerular perfusion are at risk for pre-renal failure. This is caused by any abnormal decline in kidney perfusion that reduces glomerular perfusion. Pre-renal failure occurs when the effective arterial blood volume falls. Examples of this phenomena include a drop in circulating blood volume as in a cardiac arrest state or in low cardiac perfusion states such as congestive heart failure associated with a cardiomyopathy. Close observation of hourly urinary output is necessary for early detection of this condition. Question 24 The nurse admitting a 5 month-old who vomited nine times in the past six hours should observe for signs of A) Metabolic acidosis B) Metabolic alkalosis C) Respiratory acidosis D) Respiratory alkalosis Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Metabolic alkalosis. Vomiting causes loss of acid from the stomach. Prolonged vomiting can result in excess loss and lead to metabolic alkalosis. Question 25 A child is injured on the school playground and appears to have a fractured leg. The FIRST action the school nurse should take is A) Call for emergency transport to the hospital B) Immobilize the limb and joints above and below the injury C) Assess the child and the extent of the injury D) Apply cold compresses to the injured area Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Assess the child and the extent of the injury. When applying the nursing process, assessment is the first step in providing care. The 5 "Ps" of vascular impairment can be used as a guide (pain, pulse, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis). Question 26 As the nurse interviews the parents of a child with asthma, it is a PRIORITY to ask about A) Household pets B) New furniture C) Lead based paint D) Plants such as cactus Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Household pets. Animal dander is a very common allergen affecting persons with asthma. Other triggers may include pollens, carpeting and household dust. Question 27 An 80 year-old client was admitted with a diagnosis of possible cerebral vascular accident. Blood pressure has ranged from 180/110 to 160/100. Over the past several hours, the nurse noted increasing lethargy. Which of the following assessments should the nurse report IMMEDIATELY to the physician? A) Slurred speech B) Incontinence C) Muscle weakness D) Rapid pulse Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Slurred speech. Changes in speech patterns and level of conscious can be indicators of continued intercranial bleeding. Treatment options may change based on further diagnostic tests. Question 28 A 3 year-old child is brought to the clinic by his grandmother to be seen for "scratching his bottom and wetting the bed at night." Based on these complaints, the nurse would INITIALLY assess for A) Allergies B) Hyperactivity C) Regression D) Pinworms Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Pinworms. Signs of pinworm infection include intense perianal itching, poor sleep patterns, general irritability, restlessness, bed- wetting, distractibility and short attention span. Question 29 A 72 year-old client with osteomyelitis requires a six week course of intravenous antibiotics. In planning for home care, the MOST important action by the nurse is A) Investigating the client's insurance coverage for home IV antibiotic therapy B) Determining if there are adequate hand washing facilities in the home C) Assessing the client's ability to participate in self care and/or the reliability of a caregiver D) Selecting the appropriate venous access device Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Assessing the client''s ability to participate in self care and/or the reliability of a caregiver. The cognitive ability of the client as well as the availability and reliability of a caregiver must be assessed to determine if home care is a feasible option. Question 30 The mother of a child with a neural tube defect asks the nurse what she can do to decrease the chances of having another baby with a neural tube defect. The BEST response by the nurse is A) "Folic acid should be taken before and after conception." B) "Multivitamin supplements are recommended during pregnancy." C) "A well balanced diet promotes normal fetal development." D) "Increased dietary iron improves the health of mother and fetus." Review Information: The correct answer is:A) "Folic acid should be taken before and after conception.". The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that all childbearing women increase folic acid from dietary sources and/or supplements. There is evidence that increased amounts of folic acid prevents neural tube defects. Question 31 The nurse is caring for a newborn with a neural tube defect. The BEST covering for the lesion is A) Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment B) Moist sterile nonadherent dressing C) Dry sterile dressing D) Sterile occlusive pressure dressing Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Moist sterile nonadherent dressing. Before surgical closure the sac is prevented from drying by the application of a sterile, moist, nonadherent dressing over the defect. Dressings are changed frequently to keep them moist. Question 32 A nurse is providing a parenting class to individuals living in a community of older homes. In discussing formula preparation, which of the following is most important to prevent lead poisoning? A) Use ready-to-feed commercial infant formula B) Boil the tap water for 10 minutes prior to preparing the formula C) Let tap water run for 2 minutes before adding to concentrate D) Buy bottled water labeled "lead free" to mix the formula Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Let tap water run for 2 minutes before adding to concentrate. Use of lead-contaminated water to prepare formula is a major source of poisoning in infants. Drinking water may be contaminated by lead from old lead pipes or lead solder used insealing water pipes. Letting tap water run for several minutes will diminish the lead contamination. Question 33 A client is admitted to the rehabilitation unit following a CVA and mild dysphagia. The MOST appropriate intervention for this client is A) Position client in upright position while eating B) Place client on a clear liquid diet C) Tilt head back to facilitate swallowing reflex D) Offer finger foods such as crackers or pretzels Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Position client in upright position while eating. An upright position facilitates proper chewing and swallowing. Question 34 The nurse explains an autograft to a client scheduled for excision of a skin tumor. The nurse knows the client understands the procedure when the client says, "I will receive tissue from A) a tissue bank." B) a pig." C) my thigh." D) synthetic skin." Review Information: The correct answer is:C) my thigh.". Autografts are done with tissue transplanted from the client''s own skin. Question 35 The nurse is caring for a newborn with tracheoesophageal fistula. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is a PRIORITY? A) Risk for dehydration B) Ineffective airway clearance C) Altered nutrition D) Risk for injury Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Ineffective airway clearance. The most common form of TEF is one in which the proximal esophageal segment terminates in a blind pouch and the distal segment is connected to the trachea or primary bronchus by a short fistula at or near the bifurcation. Thus, a priority is maintaining an open airway, preventing aspiration. Other nursing diagnoses are then addressed. Question 36 A client has been hospitalized after an automobile accident. A full leg cast was applied in the emergency room. The MOST important reason for the nurse to elevate the casted leg is to A) Promote the client's comfort B) Reduce the drying time C) Decrease irritation to the skin D) Improve venous return Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Improve venous return. Elevating the leg both improves venous return and reduces swelling. Question 37 A nurse is working with family members of a newly diagnosed client with Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following interventions is MOST helpful? A) Teaching relaxation techniques B) Implementing a daily exercise routine C) Improving daily nutritional intake D) Suggesting communication strategies Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Suggesting communication strategies. Since Alzheimer''s disease is a progressive chronic illness that greatly challenges caregivers, the nurse can be of greatest assistance in helping family to identify language changes, and select verbal and nonverbal communication strategies to minimize aberrant behavior. Question 38 The nurse is teaching a client with non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus about the prescribed diet. The nurse should teach the client to A) Maintain previous calorie intake B) Keep a candy bar available at all times C) Reduce carbohydrates intake to 25% of total calories D) Keep a regular schedule of meals and snacks Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Keep a regular schedule of meals and snacks. Currently, calorie-controlled diets with strict mealplans are rarely suggested for clients who have diabetes. Try to incorporate schedule or food changes into clients'' existing dietary patterns. Help clients learn to read labels and identify specific canned foods, frozen entrees, or other foods which are acceptable and those which should be avoided. Question 39 The mother of a two month-old baby calls the nurse at a well-baby clinic two days after the first DTaP immunization. She reports that the baby feels very warm, has cried inconsolably for as long as three hours, and has had several shaking spells. The response of the nurse should be to A) instruct the mother to call 911 for an ambulance to transport the infant B) suggest that these are expected reactions and to begin every 4 hour antipyretics C) tell the mother to take the infant immediately to the nearest emergency room D) give instructions to bring the infant to the clinic now Review Information: The correct answer is:A)instruct the mother to call 911 for an ambulance to transport the infant The exhibited findings of the infant indicate a severe reaction to the immunizations. Immediate attention is needed & an ambulance with trained staff needs to transport because of the risk of grand mal seizures from potential encephalopathy which is a critical reaction. The mother would need to be instructed after this acute reaction to inform the provider of this reaction to the first dose of DTaP. Based on the need and risk involved to the infant, the health care provider may decide that further DTaP immunizations are contraindicated for life. The clinic nurse would need to document in the notes for this infant: the instructions given, findings reported by the mother and specific follow-up needs for the next clinic visit in relation to teaching and evaluation of the outcome of this event. Question 40 The nurse is teaching a class on HIV prevention. Which of the following should be emphasized as increasing risk? A) Donating blood B) Using public bathrooms C) Unprotected sex D) Touching a person with AIDS Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Unprotected sex. Because HIV is spread through exposure to bodily fluids, unprotected intercourse and shared drug paraphernalia remain the highest risk for infection. Question 41 A 6 year-old child is seen for the first time in the clinic. Upon assessment, the nurse finds that the child has short palpebral fissures, thinned upper lip, and hypoplastic philtrum of the upper lip. The mother states that the child seems to have problems in learning to count and recognizing basic colors. Based on this data, the nurse suspects that the child is MOST likely showing the effects of A) Congenital abnormalities B) Chronic toxoplasmosis C) Fetal alcohol syndrome D) Lead poisoning Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Fetal alcohol syndrome. Major features of fetal alcohol syndrome consist of facial and associated physical features, such as short palpebral fissure, hypoplastic philtrum, thinned upper lip, short, upturned nose. Behavioral problems, cognitive impairment and psychosocial deficits are also associated with this syndrome. Question 42 The nurse is performing the admission assessment of a client with an acute episode of asthma. Which of the following assessments would the nurse anticipate finding? A) Prolonged inspiration B) Expiratory wheezes C) Expectorating large amounts of purulent mucous D) Lethargy Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Expiratory wheezes. Asthma is characterized by expiratory wheezes caused by obstruction of the airways. Wheezes are a high pitched musical sounds produced by air moving through narrowed airways. Clients often associate wheezes with the feeling of tightness in the chest. Question 43 The nurse is planning a meal plan that would provide the most iron for a child with anemia. Which of the following dinner menus would be BEST? A) Fish sticks, french fries, banana, cookies, milk B) Ground beef patty, lima beans, wheat roll, raisins, milk C) Chicken nuggets, macaroni, peas, cantaloupe, milk D) Peanut butter and jelly sandwich, apple slices, milk Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Ground beef patty, lima beans, wheat roll, raisins, milk. Iron rich foods include red meat, fish, egg yolks, green leafy vegetables, legumes, whole grains, dried fruits such as raisins. This dinner is the best choice, high in iron and is appropriate for a toddler. Question 44 A ten year-old client is recovering from a splenectomy following a traumatic injury. The clients laboratory results show a hemoglobin of 9 g/dL and a hematocrit of 28 percent. The BEST approach for the nurse to use is to A) Limit milk and milk products B) Encourage bed activities and games C) Plan nursing care around lengthy rest periods D) Promote a diet rich in iron Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Plan nursing care around lengthy rest periods. The initial priority for this client is rest due to the inability of red blood cells to carry oxygen. Question 45 The nurse planning care for a 12 year-old child with sickle cell disease in a vaso-occlusive crisis of the elbow should include which one of the following as a PRIORITY? A) Limit fluids B) Client controlled analgesia C) Cold compresses to elbow D) Passive range of motion exercise Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Client controlled analgesia. Management of a crisis is directed towards supportive and symptomatic treatment. The priority of care is pain relief. In a 12 year-old child, client controlled analgesia promotes maximum comfort. Question 46 As the nurse provides discharge teaching to the parents of a 15 month-old child with Kawasaki Disease who has received immunoglobulin therapy, which one of the following instructions would be MOST appropriate? A) High doses of aspirin will be continued for some time B) Complete recovery is expected within several days C) Active range of motion exercises should be done frequently D) The measles, mumps and rubella vaccine should be delayed Review Information: The correct answer is:D) The measles, mumps and rubella vaccine should be delayed. Discharge instructions for a child with Kawasaki Disease should include immunoglobulin therapy may interfere with the body''s ability to form appropriate amounts of antibodies and live immunizations should be delayed. Question 47 The nurse is giving instructions to the parents of a child with Cystic Fibrosis. The nurse would emphasize that pancreatic enzymes should be taken A) Once each day B) Three times daily after meals C) With each meal or snack D) Each time carbohydrates are eaten Review Information: The correct answer is:C) With each meal or snack. Pancreatic enzymes should be taken with each meal and every snack to allow for digestion of all foods that are eaten. Question 48 The nurse is assessing an eight month-old infant with a malfunctioning ventriculoperitoneal shunt. Which one of the following manifestations would the infant be MOST likely to exhibit? A) Lethargy B) Irritability C) Negative Moro D) Depressed fontanel Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Irritability. Signs of IICP (increased intracranial pressure) in infants include bulging fontanel, instability, high-pitched cry, and cries when held. Vital sign changes include pulse that is variable, i.e., rapid, slow and bounding, or feeble. Respirations are more often slow, deep, and irregular. Question 49 The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a toddler. Which of the following should be the FIRST action? A) Perform traumatic procedures B) Use minimal physical contact C) Proceed from head to toe D) Explain the exam in detail Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Use minimal physical contact. The nurse should approach the toddler slowly and use minimal physical contact initially so as to gain the toddler''s cooperation. Be flexible in the sequence of the exam, and give only brief simple explanations just prior to the action. Question 50 A client has been tentatively diagnosed with Graves' disease (hyperthyroidism). Which of the following symptoms noted on the initial nursing assessment is expected? A) Recent weight gain B) Physical growth delay C) Protruding eyeballs D) Sudden onset of irritability Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Protruding eyeballs. Exophthalmos or protruding eyeballs is a distinctive characteristic of Graves'' Disease. Question 51 When assessing a client admitted to the hospital for diabetic acidosis, which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse expect? A) A blood pH level above 7.5 B) Arterial blood PCO2 above 40 C) Blood pH level below 7.3 D) Arterial blood PCO2 below 10 Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Blood pH level below 7.3. In the absence of insulin, which facilitates the transport of glucose into the cell, the body breaks down fats and proteins to supply energy ketones, a by-product of fat metabolism. These accumulate causing metabolic acidosis (pH 7.3). Question 52 The nurse is explaining the proper use of syrup of ipecac to a group of parents. For which of the following accidental poisonings is the treatment appropriate? A) Oven cleaner B) Drain cleaner C) Kerosene D) Chewable vitamins Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Chewable vitamins. Of the above choices, poisoning with vitamins is the only case in which it is safe to induce vomiting with syrup of ipecac. Question 53 A two year-old child is brought to the pediatrician's office with a chief complaint of mild diarrhea for two days. Nutritional counseling by the nurse should include which one of the following statements? A) Place the child on clear liquids and gelatin for 24 hours B) Continue with the regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids C) Give bananas, apples, rice and toast as tolerated D) Place NPO for 24 hours, then rehydrate with milk and water Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Continue with the regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids. Current recommendations for mild to moderate diarrhea are to maintain a normal diet with rehydration fluids. Question 54 The nurse is teaching an elderly client how to use MDI's (multi-dose inhalers). The nurse is concerned that the client is unable to coordinate the release of the medication with the inhalation phase. The nurse's BEST recommendation for the client is A) Nebulized treatments for home care B) Adding a spacer device to the MDI canister C) Asking a family member to assist the client with the MDI D) Request a visiting nurse to follow the client at home Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Adding a spacer device to the MDI canister. The majority of pulmonary medications for COPD are delivered by inhalation.This is often preferred over oral administration because a lower drug dose is needed and systemic side effects are reduced. In addition, the onset of action of bronchodilator medication given via inhalation is faster. Question 55 Which of the following manifestations observed by the school nurse confirms the presence of pediculosis capitis in students? A) Scratching the head more than usual B) Flakes evident on a student's shoulders C) Oval pattern occipital hair loss D) Whitish oval specks sticking to the hair Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Whitish oval specks sticking to the hair. Diagnosis of pediculosis capitis is made by observation of the white eggs (nits) firmly attached to the hair shafts. Treatment includes shampoo application, such as lindane for children over 2 years of age, and meticulous combing and removal of all nits. Question 56 When parents call the emergency room to report that a toddler has swallowed drain cleaner, the nurse instructs them to call for emergency transport to the hospital. While waiting for an ambulance, the BEST action the nurse would suggest to the parents is A) Administer syrup of ipecac B) Offer small amounts of water C) Have the child drink milk D) Give ginger ale or cola Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Offer small amounts of water. Small amounts of water will dilute the corrosive substance prior to gastric lavage. Question 57 A client is scheduled for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram). Which of the following data from the client's history indicate a potential hazard for this test? A) Reflex incontinence B) Allergic to shellfish C) Claustrophobia D) Hypertension Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Allergic to shellfish. It is important to know if the client has an allergy to iodine or shellfish. If the client does, they may have an allergic reaction to the IVP contrast dye injected during the procedure. Question 58 A high school nurse is advising a class of unwed pregnant students that the MOST important action they can perform to deliver a healthy child is A) Maintaining good nutrition B) Staying in school C) Keeping in contact with the child's father D) Getting adequate sleep Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Maintaining good nutrition. Nurses can serve a pivotal role in providing nutritional education and case management interventions. Weight gain during pregnancy is one of the strongest predictors of infant birth weight. Specifically, teens need to increase their intake of protein, vitamins, and minerals including iron. Pregnant teens who gain between 26 and 35 pounds have the lowest incidence of low-birth- weight babies. Question 59 The nurse is preparing a handout on infant feeding to be distributed to families visiting the clinic. Which of the following should be included in the teaching materials? A) Solid foods are introduced one at a time beginning with cereal B) Finely ground meat should be started early to provide iron C) Egg white is added early to increase protein intake D) Solid foods should be mixed with formula in a bottle Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Solid foods are introduced one at a time beginning with cereal. Solid foods should be added one at a time between 4-6 months. If the infant is able to tolerate the food, another may be added in a week. Iron fortified cereal is the recommended first food. Question 60 The nurse is caring for a client with sickle cell disease who is scheduled to receive a unit of packed red blood cells. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse when administering the infusion? A) Storing the packed red cells in the medicine refrigerator while starting IV B) Slow the rate of infusion if the client develops fever or chills C) Limit the infusion time of each of the unit to a maximum of four hours D) Assess vital signs every 15 minutes throughout the entire infusion Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Limit the infusion time of each of the unit to a maximum of four hours. Infuse the specified amount of blood within 4 hours. If the infusion will exceed this time, the blood should be divided into appropriately sized quantities. Question 61 A client with a documented pulmonary embolism has the following arterial blood gases: PO2 - 70 mm hg, PCO2 - 32 mm hg, pH - 7.45, SaO2 - 87%, HCO3 - 22. Based on thisdata, what is the FIRST nursing action? A) Review other lab data B) Notify the physician C) Administer oxygen D) Calm the client Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Administer oxygen. The client has a low PCO2 due to increased respiratory rate from the hypoxemia and signs of respiratory alkalosis. Immediate intervention is indicated. Question 62 A client diagnosed with hepatitis C discusses his health history with the admitting nurse. The nurse should recognize which of the following as the MOST important data? A) Recent travel to Central America B) Ingestion of raw shellfish last week C) Multiple sex partners D) Blood transfusion 15 years ago Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Blood transfusion 15 years ago. The client who was transfused prior to blood screening for hepatitis C may show symptoms many years later. Question 63 A client is recovering from a thyroidectomy. While monitoring the client's initial post operative condition, which of the following should the nurse report immediately? A) Tetany and paresthesia B) Mild stridor and hoarseness C) Irritability and insomnia D) Headache and nausea Review Information: The correct answer is: A) Tetany and paresthesia. Because the parathyroid gland may be damaged in this surgery, secondary hypocalcemia may occur. Symptoms of hypoparathyroidism include tetany, paresthesia, muscle cramps and seizures. Question 64 A client is admitted with a right upper lobe infiltrate, and also to rule out tuberculosis. The isolation precautions the nurse would institute include A) Positive pressure ventilation B) Gown and gloves C) Particulate respirator mask D) Barrier precautions Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Particulate respirator mask. Tight fitting, high-efficiency masks are required when caring for clients who have suspected communicable disease of the airborne variety. Question 65 A client had 20 mg of Lasix (furosemide) PO at 10 AM. Which would be essential for the nurse to include at the change of shift report? A) The client lost 2 pounds B) The client's potassium level is 4 mEq/liter. C) The client's urine output was 1500 cc in five hours D) The client is to receive another dose of Lasix at 10 PM Review Information: The correct answer is:C) The client's urine output was 1500 cc in five hours. Although all of these may be correct information to include in report, the essential piece would be the urine output. Question 66 The nurse is caring for a client with a colostomy. During a teaching session, the nurse recommends that the pouch be emptied A) When it is one third to one half full B) Prior to meals C) After each fecal elimination D) At the same time each day Review Information: The correct answer is:A) When it is one third to one half full. If the pouch becomes more than half full it may separate from the flange. Question 67 A couple asks the nurse about risks of several birth control methods. The MOST appropriate response by the nurse would be A) Norplant is safe and may be removed easily B) Oral contraceptives should not be used by smokers C) Depo-Provera is convenient with few side effects D) The IUD gives protection from pregnancy and infection Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Oral contraceptives should not be used by smokers. The use of oral contraceptives in a pregnant woman who smokes increases her risk of cardiovascular problems. Question 68 Lactulose (Chronulac) has been prescribed for a client with advanced liver disease. Which of the following assessments would the nurse use to evaluate the effectiveness of this treatment? A) An increase in appetite B) A decrease in fluid retention C) A decrease in lethargy D) A reduction in jaundice Review Information: The correct answer is:C) A decrease in lethargy. Lactulose produces and acid environment in the bowel and trapsammonia in the gut; the laxative effect then aids in removing the ammonia from the body. This decreases the effects of hepatic encephalopathy, including lethargy and confusion. Question 69 The mother of a 3 month-old infant tells the nurse that she wants to change from formula towhole milk and add cereal and meats to the diet. What should be emphasized as the nurse teaches about infant nutrition? A) Solid foods should be introduced at 3-4 months B) Whole milk is difficult for a young infant to digest C) Fluoridated tap water should be used to dilute milk D) Supplemental apple juice can be used between feedings Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Whole milk is difficult for a young infant to digest. Cow''s milk is not given to infants younger than 1 year because the tough, hard curd is difficult to digest. Also it contains little iron and creates a high renal solute load. Question 70 The nurse is assessing a 55 year-old female client who is scheduled for abdominal surgery. Which of the following information would indicate that the client is at risk for thrombusformation in the post-operative period? A) Estrogen replacement therapy B) 10% less than ideal body weight C) Hypersensitivity to heparin D) History of hepatitis Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Estrogen replacement therapy. Estrogen increases the hypercoagualability of the blood and increased the risk for development of thrombophlebitis. Question 71 The nurse is planning discharge for a 90 year-old client with musculo-skeletal weakness. Which of the following interventions would be MOST effective in preventing falls? A) Place nightlights in bedroom B) Wear eyeglasses at all times C) Install grab bars in the bathroom D) Teach muscle strengthening exercises Review Information: The correct answer is:A) Place nightlights in bedroom. Because more falls occur in the bedroom than any other location, begin there. However, work in partnership with the client and family so they are willing to move furniture, lamp cords, and storage areas; add lighting; remove throw rugs; and decrease other environmental hazards. Question 72 While obtaining the history of a two week-old infant during the well-baby exam, the nurse finds that the neonatal screening for phenylketonuria (PKU) was done when the infant was less than 24 hours-old. It is a PRIORITY for the nurse to A) Schedule the infant for a repeat test in two weeks B) Obtain a repeat blood test at this point C) Contact the hospital of birth for the results D) Document that the test results are pending Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Obtain a repeat blood test at this point. Testing for PKU is most reliable when protein has been ingested. A repeat blood specimen must be obtained by the third week of life if the initial specimen was taken from an infant less than 24 hours-old. Question 73 Two hours after the normal spontaneous vaginal delivery of a woman who is gravida 4 para 4, the nurse notes that the fundus is boggy and displaced slightly above and to the left of the umbilicus. The appropriate INITIAL nursing action is to A) Assess lochia for color and amount B) Monitor pulse and blood pressure C) Call the physician immediately D) Ask the woman to empty her bladder Review Information: The correct answer is:D) Ask the woman to empty her bladder. A full bladder can displace the uterus and prevent contraction. After the woman empties the bladder, the fundus should be assessed again. Question 74 An 8 year-old client is admitted to the hospital for surgery. The child's parent reports several allergies. Which of the following should all health care personnel be aware of? A) Shellfish B) Molds C) Balloons D) Perfumed soap Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Balloons. Allergy to balloons indicates a latex allergy. All personnel in contact with the child will need to be aware of this condition and use non-latex gloves. Question 75 The nurse is caring for a client who is post-op following a thoracotomy. The client has two chest tubes in place,connected to one chest drain. The nursing assessment reveals bubbling in the water seal chamber when the client coughs. What is the MOST appropriate nursing action? A) Clamp the chest tube B) Call the surgeon immediately C) Continue to monitor the client to see if the bubbling increases D) Instruct the client to try to avoid coughing Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Continue to monitor the client to see if the bubbling increases. Bubbling associated with coughing after lung surgery is to be expected as small amounts of air escape the pleural space when pressures inside the chest increase with coughing. Monitoring is the only nursing action required. Question 76 The nurse is reinforcing teaching to a 24 year-old woman receiving acyclovir (Zovirax) for a Herpes Simplex Virus type 2 infection. The nurse should instruct the client to A) Complete the entire course of the medication for an effective cure B) Begin treatment with acyclovir at the onset of symptoms of recurrence C) Stop treatment if she thinks she may be pregnant to prevent birth defects D) Continue to take prophylactic doses for at least five years after the diagnosis Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Begin treatment with acyclovir at the onset of symptoms of recurrence. When the client is aware of early symptoms, such as pain, itching or tingling, treatment is very effective. Question 77 An eight year-old child is hospitalized during the edema phase of minimal change nephrotic syndrome. The nurse is assisting in choosing the lunch menu. Which one of the following is the BEST choice? A) Bologna sandwich, pudding, milk B) Frankfurter, baked potato, milk C) Chicken strips, corn on the cob, milk D) Grilled cheese sandwich, apple, milk Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Chicken strips, corn on the cob, milk. This menu is lowest in sodium. Ideally, low fat milk would be available. Question 78 The nurse is teaching parents about accidental poisoning in children. Which of the following should be emphasized? A) Start treatment before calling the Poison Control Center B) Empty the child's mouth in any case of possible poisoning C) Do not move the child if a toxic substance was inhaled D) Induce vomiting if the poison is a hydrocarbon Review Information: The correct answer is:B) Empty the child''s mouth in any case of possible poisoning. Emptying the mouth of poison interferes with further ingestion and should be done first to limit contact with the substance. Question 79 Which of the following symptoms contraindicate the use of haloperidol (Haldol) and warrant withholding the dose? A) Drowsiness, lethargy, and inactivity B) Dry mouth, nasal congestion, and blurred vision C) Rash, blood dyscrasias, severe depression D) Hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Rash, blood dyscrasias, severe depression. Rash and blood dyscrasias are side effects of anti-psychotic drugs. A history of severe depression is a contraindication to the use of neuroleptics. Question 80 The nurse is planning care for a 14 year-old client returning from scoliosis corrective surgery. Which of the following actions should receive PRIORITY in the plan? A) Antibiotic therapy for 10 days B) Teach client isometric exercises for legs C) Assess movement and sensation of extremities D) Assist to stand up at bedside within the first 24 hours Review Information: The correct answer is:C) Assess movement and sensation of extremities.

mary healthcare provider immediately b. Apply a warm, moist compress to the incision site c. Increase the intravenous fluid rate by 20 mL/hr d. Monitor vital signs more frequently b Correct answer- A nurse observes a window washer falling 25 feet (7.6 m) to the ground. The nurse rushes to the scene and determines that the person is in cardiopulmonary arrest. What should the nurse do first? a. Feel for a pulse b. Begin chest compressions c. Leave to call for assistance d. Perform the abdominal thrust maneuver d Correct answer- A client reports left-sided chest pain after playing racquetball. The client is hospitalized and diagnosed with left pneumothorax. When assessing the client's left chest area, the nurse expects to identify which finding? a. Dull sound on percussion b. Vocal fremitus on palpation c. Rales with rhonchi on auscultation d. Absence of breath sounds on auscultation c Correct answer- A client is admitted to the hospital with partial- and full-thickness burns of the chest and face sustained while trying to extinguish a brush fire. Which is the nurse's priority concern? a. Loss of skin integrity caused by the burns b. Potential infection as a result of the burn injury c. Inadequate gas exchange caused by smoke inhalation d. Decreased fluid volume because of the depth of the burns b Correct answer- During the first 48 hours after a client has sustained a thermal injury, which conditions should the nurse assess for? a. Hypokalemia and hyponatremia b. Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia c. Hypokalemia and hypernatremia d. Hyperkalemia and hypernatremia a Correct answer- A nurse is assessing a client's ECG reading. The client's atrial and ventricular heart rates are equal at 88 beats per min. The PR interval is 0.14 seconds, and the QRS width is 0.10 seconds. Rhythm is regular with normal P waves and QRS complexes. How will the nurse interpret this rhythm? a. Normal sinus rhythm b. Sinus tachycardia c. Sinus bradycardia d. Sinus arrhythmia b Correct answer- The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of necrotizing fasciitis. Which is the priority concern of the nurse when caring for this client? a. Fluid volume b. Skin integrity c. Physical mobility d. Urinary elimination c Correct answer- A client who had extensive pelvic surgery 24 hours ago becomes cyanotic, is gasping for breath, and reports right-sided chest pain. What should the nurse do first? a. Obtain vital signs b. Initiate a cardiac arrest code c. Administer oxygen using a face mask d. Encourage the use of an incentive spirometer c Correct answer- A nurse is caring for a client with severe burns. The nurse determines that this client is at risk for hypovolemic shock. Which physiologic finding supports the nurse's conclusion? a. Decreased rate of glomerular filtration b. Excessive blood loss through the burned tissues c. Plasma proteins moving out of the intravascular compartment d. Sodium retention occurring as a result of the aldosterone mechanism a Correct answer- The nurse is caring for a client with burns and reviews the client's laboratory results: blood urea nitrogen (BUN), 30 mg/dL (10.2 mmol/L); creatinine, 2.4 mg/dL (184 mcmol/L); serum potassium, 6.3 mEq/L (6.3 mmol/L); pH, 7.1; Po 2, 90 mm Hg; and hemoglobin (Hgb), 7.4 g/dL (74 mmol/L). Which condition does the nurse suspect the client has based upon these findings? a. Azotemia b. Hypokalemia c. Metabolic alkalosis d. Respiratory alkalosis d Correct answer- A nurse is caring for a client who experienced serious burns in a fire. Which relationship between a client's burned body surface area and fluid loss should the nurse consider when evaluating fluid loss in a client with burns? a. Equal b. Unrelated c. Inversely related d. Directly proportional c Correct answer- A burn client is receiving the open method for wound treatment. Which information will the nurse explain to the client? a. Bathing will not be permitted. b. Dressings will be changed daily. c. Personal protective equipment will be worn by staff. d. Room temperature will be kept below 72° F (22.2° C). a Correct answer- A client presents to the emergency department with weakness and dizziness. The blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, pulse is 92 and weak, and body weight reflects a 3-pound (1.4 kilogram) loss in two days. The weather has been hot. Which condition should the nurse conclude is the priority for this client? a. Deficient fluid volume b. Impaired skin integrity c. Inadequate nutritional intake d. Decreased participation in activities b Correct answer- A client is admitted with severe burns. The nurse is caring for the client 36 hours after the client's admission and identifies the client's potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L (6.0 mmol/L). Which drink will the nurse recommend be included in the client's diet? a. Milk b. Tea c. Orange juice d. Tomato juice a Correct answer- A woman comes to the office of her healthcare provider reporting shortness of breath and epigastric distress that is not relieved by antacids. To which question would a woman experiencing a myocardial infarction respond differently than a man? a. "Do you have chest pain?" b. "Are you feeling anxious?" c. "Do you have any palpitations?" d. "Are you feeling short of breath?" b Correct answer- During a vertex vaginal birth the nurse notes meconium-stained amniotic fluid. What is the priority nursing intervention for the newborn? a. Stimulating crying b. Suctioning the airway c. Using an Ambu bag with oxygen support d. Placing the infant in the reverse Trendelenburg position c Correct answer- While receiving a blood transfusion, the client suddenly shouts, "I feel like someone is lowering a heavy weight on my chest. I feel like I'm going to die!" Which actions are priority? a. Administer nitroglycerin and aspirin b. Slow the rate and monitor the vital signs c. Stop the transfusion and administer normal saline through new IV tubing d. Ask the client to further describe the feeling and rate the pain d Correct answer- A client who was hospitalized with partial- and full-thickness burns over 30% of the total body surface area is to be discharged. The client asks the nurse, "How will my spouse be able to care for me at home?" How should the nurse interpret this statement? a. Readiness to discuss the client's deformities b. Indication of a change in family relations c. Need for more time to think about the future d. Beginning realization of implications for the future b Correct answer- A nurse is assessing a client with a cast to the extremity. Which assessment finding is the priority? a. Warmth b. Numbness c. Skin desquamation d. Generalized discomfort b Correct answer- Which color of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) may indicate subarachnoid hemorrhage in the client? a. Hazy b. Yellow c. Brown d. Colorless c Correct answer- A client arrives in the emergency department with multiple crushing wounds of the chest, abdomen, and legs. Which are the priority nursing assessments? a. Level of consciousness and pupil size b. Characteristics of pain and blood pressure c. Quality of respirations and presence of pulses d. Observation of abdominal contusions and other wounds b Correct answer- Which color tag will be given by the triage nurse to a client assigned to class IV, during a mass casualty situation? a. Red b. Black c. Green d. Yellow a Correct answer- A client who sustained a burn injury involving 36% of the body surface area is receiving hydrotherapy. Which is the best nursing intervention when providing wound care? a. Use a consistent approach to care and encourage participation. b. Prepare equipment while doing the procedure and explain the treatment to the client. c. Rinse the burn area with 105° F (40.6° C) water to prevent loss of body temperature. d. Arrange for a change of staff every 4 to 5 days and have the client select the time for the procedure to be done. b Correct answer- Which clinical manifestation can a client experience during a fat embolism syndrome (FES)? a. Nausea b. Dyspnea c. Orthopnea d. Paresthesia b Correct answer- A client was admitted with full-thickness burns 2 weeks ago. Since admission, the client has lost an average of 1 lb (0.5 kg) of weight each day. Which action will the nurse most likely take based upon the adjusted dietary plan? a. Provide low-sodium milk. b. Provide high-protein drinks. c. Provide foods that are low in potassium. d. Provide 10% more calories in the form of fats. d Correct answer- A burn victim has waxy white areas interspersed with pink and red areas on the anterior trunk and all of both arms. The nurse calculates the percentage of total body surface area (TBSA). Which percentage will the nurse report? a. 20 b. 25 c. 30 d. 36 d Correct answer- A nurse places a client with severe burns on a circulating air bed. Which goal is the nurse trying to achieve? a. Increasing mobility b. Preventing contractures c. Limiting orthostatic hypotension d. Preventing pressure on peripheral blood vessels a Correct answer- Which noninvasive assessment and management skills certification would the nurse be required to use for airway maintenance and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)? a. Basic Life Support (BLS) b. Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN) c. Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS) d. Pediatric Advanced Life Support (PALS) b Correct answer- The nurse is caring for different clients in a mass casualty event. Which client is assigned the lowest priority for care? a. Client with red tag b. Client with black tag c. Client with green tag d. Client with yellow tag b Correct answer- On the morning of surgery a client is admitted for resection of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. While awaiting surgery, the client suddenly develops symptoms of shock. Which nursing action is priority? a. Prepare for blood transfusions. b. Notify the surgeon immediately. c. Make the client nothing by mouth (NPO). d. Administer the prescribed preoperative sedative. a Correct answer- A nurse understands that value clarification is a technique useful in therapeutic communication because initially it helps clients do what? a. Become aware of their personal values b. Gain information related to their needs c. Make correct decisions related to their health d. Alter their value systems to make them more socially acceptable b Correct answer- An Asian client arrives at the mental health clinic with symptoms of anxiety and panic. While speaking with the client, the nurse notes that the client makes very little eye contact. What does this assessment data suggest? a. Shyness b. Cultural variation c. Symptom of depression d. Shame regarding treatment d Correct answer- Before effectively responding to a sexually abused victim on the phone, it is essential that the nurse in the rape crisis center do what? a. Get the client's full name and address. b. Call for assistance from the psychiatrist. c. Know some myths and facts about sexual assault. d. Be aware of any personal bias about sexual assault. c Correct answer- Which ethnic group has a greater incidence of osteoporosis due to musculoskeletal differences? a. Irish Americans b. African Americans c. Chinese Americans d. Egyptian Americans a Correct answer- The preschool-age client is learning sociocultural mores. What should this imply to the nurse regarding this client? a. The child is developing a conscience. b. The child is learning about gender roles. c. The child is developing a sense of security. d. The child is learning about the political process. c Correct answer- A client who has a hemoglobin of 6 gm/dL (60 mmol/L) is refusing blood because of religious reasons. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse? a. Call the chaplain to convince the client to receive the blood transfusion. b. Discuss the case with coworkers. c. Notify the primary healthcare provider of the client's refusal of blood products. d. Explain to the client that they will die without the blood transfusion. b Correct answer- Obesity in children is an ever-worsening problem. What concept should a nurse consider when caring for school-aged children who are obese? a. Enjoyment of specific foods is inherited. b. There are familial influences on childhood eating habits. c. Childhood obesity is usually not a predictor of adult obesity. d. Children with obese parents are destined to become obese themselves. d Correct answer- After determining that the nurses on the psychiatric unit are uncomfortable caring for clients who are from different cultures than their own, the nurse manager establishes a unit goal that by the next annual review the unit will have achieved what? a. Increased cultural sensitivity b. Decreased cultural imposition c. Decreased cultural dissonance d. Increased cultural competence a Correct answer- A client who only speaks Spanish is being cared for at a hospital in which nursing personnel only speak English. What communication technique would be appropriate for the nurse to use when discussing healthcare decisions with the client? a. Contact an interpreter provided by the hospital. b. Contact the client's family member to translate for the client. c. Communicate with the client using Spanish phrases the nurse learned in a college course. d. Communicate with the client with the use of a hospital-approved Spanish dictionary. b Correct answer- During a routine checkup a patient reports concerns over weight gain despite trying juice cleanses and other trend diets. The nurse records the patient's weight and BMI at a healthy range, but the patient states, "I wish I were as thin as my co-workers." The patient is at risk for what culturally-bound condition? a. Neurasthenia b. Anorexia nervosa c. Shenjing shuairuo d. Ataque de nervios a Correct answer- The nurse is caring for an Asian client who had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy six hours ago. When asked whether there is pain, the client smiles and says, "No." What should the nurse do? a. Monitor for nonverbal cues of pain b. Check the pressure dressing for bleeding c. Assist the client to ambulate around his room d. Irrigate the client's nasogastric tube with sterile water a Correct answer- A 5-year-old child who is newly arrived from Latin America attends a nursery school where everyone speaks English. The child's mother tells the nurse that her child is no longer outgoing and has become very passive in the classroom. What is the probable reason for the child's behavior? a. Culture shock b. Social immaturity c. Experience of discrimination d. Lack of interest in school activities d Correct answer- A nurse manager works on a unit where the nursing staff members are uncomfortable taking care of clients from cultures that are different from their own. How should the nurse manager address this situation? a. Assign articles about various cultures so that they can become more knowledgeable. b. Relocate the nurses to units where they will not have to care for clients from a variety of cultures. c. Rotate the nurses' assignments so they have an equal opportunity to care for clients from other cultures. d. Plan a workshop that offers opportunities to learn about the cultures they might encounter while at work. a Correct answer- A mother brings her 9-month-old infant to the clinic. The nurse is familiar with the mother's culture and knows that belly binding to prevent extrusion of the umbilicus is a common practice. The nurse accepts the mother's cultural beliefs but is concerned for the infant's safety. What variation of belly binding does the nurse discourage? a. Coin in the umbilicus b. Tight diaper over the umbilicus c. Binder that encircles the umbilicus d. Adhesive tape across the umbilicus c Correct answer- What should a nurse consider about the past experiences of clients who have immigrated to this country? a. It affects all of their inherited traits. b. There will be little impact on their lives today. c. It is important that their values be assessed first. d. How they will interact is permanently established. a Correct answer- Which behavior is seen in children at the undifferentiated stage of spiritual development, as propounded by Fowler? a. Children have no concept of right or wrong to guide their behaviors. b. Children imitate the religious behaviors without comprehending any meaning. c. Children reason and question some of the established parental religious standards. d. Children have a reverence for religious matters and are able to articulate their faith. c Correct answer- A nurse hired to work in a metropolitan hospital provides services for a culturally diverse population. One of the nurses on the unit says it is the nurses' responsibility to discourage "these people" from bringing all that "home medicine stuff" to their family members. Which response by the recently hired nurse is most appropriate? a. "Hospital policies should put a stop to this." b. "Everyone should conform to the prevailing culture." c. "Nontraditional approaches to health care can be beneficial." d. "You are right because they may have a negative impact on people's health." a Correct answer- A resident in a nursing home recently immigrated to the United States (Canada) from Italy. How does the nurse plan to provide emotional support? a. By offering choices consistent with the client's heritage b. By assisting the client in adjusting to American culture c. By ensuring that the client understands American beliefs d. By correcting the client's misconceptions about appropriate health practices b Correct answer- A multigravida of Asian descent weighs 104 lb (47.2 kg), having gained 14 pounds (6.4 kg) during the pregnancy. On her second postpartum day, the client's temperature is 99.2° F (37.3° C). She has had poor dietary intake since admission. What should the nurse do? a. Ask the nursing supervisor to discuss this with the healthcare provider. b. Encourage the family to bring in special foods preferred in their culture. c. Order a high-protein milkshake as a between-meal snack to stimulate her appetite. d. Explain to the family that the dietitian plans nutritious meals that the client should eat. d Correct answer- Which internal variable influences health beliefs and practices? a. Family practices b. Cultural background c. Socioeconomic factors d. Intellectual background c Correct answer- A new mother said to the nurse, "I would like to care for my baby independently rather than depending on the baby's grandparents." What does the nurse infer from this information? a. The patient is of Asian culture. b. The patient is of African culture. c. The patient is of North American culture. d. The patient is of Latin American culture. c Correct answer- As the nurse is discussing psychiatric care with an older adult client, the client says, "When I was growing up I was taught to accept my lot in life and not complain. I'm proud of the fact that despite my issues I can still function independently. I don't want to be just put away." The nurse understands that the factors that influence the client's mental health are examples of what? a. Setting of care b. Anxiety disorder c. Attitudes and beliefs d. Cultural and ethnic disparities d Correct answer- The nurse is caring for an Asian-American client with a diagnosis of depression. While interviewing this client the nurse notes that the client maintains traditional cultural beliefs and values. What is the most important information for the nurse to obtain about the client? a. Dietary practices b. Concept of space c. Immigration status d. Role within the family c Correct answer- How can the lines of communication be improved in a healthcare organization during the process of delegation? a. By considering all aspects of client care b. By selecting experienced nursing assistants as delegatees c. By appreciating and valuing each other's cultural perspectives d. By selecting a delegatee having similar strengths as that of the delegator b Correct answer- During a survey, the community nurse meets a client who has not visited a gynecologist after the birth of her second child. The client says that her mother or sister never had annual gynecologic examinations. Which factor is influencing the client's health practice? a. Spiritual belief b. Family practices c. Emotional factors d. Cultural background d Correct answer- The nurse is caring for an African American client with renal failure. The client states that the illness is a punishment for sins. Which cultural health belief does the client communicate? a. Yin/Yang balance b. Biomedical belief c. Determinism belief d. Magicoreligious belief a Correct answer- A pregnant immigrant notices cultural differences in the way that pregnant women are cared for where she now lives. Which component of cultural competence is being demonstrated when the nurse motivates the immigrant to accept these differences? a. Cultural desire b. Cultural awareness c. Cultural knowledge d. Cultural encounters a Correct answer- A nurse notices that a client is in spiritual distress. Which nursing action establishes the nurse as a caregiver? a. The nurse provides therapeutic treatment to the client. b. The nurse teaches the client about signs of spiritual distress. c. The nurse communicates the wishes of the client to family members. d. The nurse collaborates with the agency chaplain to pursue the best treatment plan. a,b,c Correct answer- Which nursing interventions are examples of the nurse as a caregiver? (Select all that apply) a. Encouraging the client to exercise daily b. Setting goals for the client to reduce weight c. Arranging for the client to meet a spiritual advisor d. Evaluating the client's understanding of prescribed diet e. Demonstrating the procedure to self-administer insulin injection b Correct answer- An African-American woman is diagnosed with primary hypertension. She asks, "Is hypertension a disease of African-American people?" What is the nurse's best response? a. "The prevalence of hypertension is about equal for women of all races." b. "The higher-risk population is composed of African-American men and women." c. "The highest-risk population consists of older Caucasian-American men and women." d. "The prevalence of hypertension is greater for African-American men than for African-American women." c Correct answer- A nurse understands that when a client is a member of a different ethnic community it is important to do what? a. Ensure that the nurse's biases are understood by the family. b. Make plans to counteract the client's misconceptions about therapies. c. Offer a therapeutic regimen compatible with the lifestyle of the family. d. Recognize that the client's responses will be similar to other clients' responses. d Correct answer- Which carative factor is involved in creating a healing environment at all levels, physical and non-physical, according to Watson's Transpersonal Caring? a. Promoting transpersonal teaching-learning b. Promoting and expressing positive and negative feelings c. Developing a helping, trusting, human caring relationship d. Providing for a supportive, protective, and/or spiritual environment d Correct answer- The nurse leader states, "The people in rural America dress and act differently from those in urban centers." What concept describes this statement? a. Acculturation b. Ethnocentrism c. Cultural imposition d. Cultural marginality c Correct answer- A daughter of a Chinese-speaking client approaches a nurse and asks multiple questions while maintaining direct eye contact. What culturally related concept does the daughter's behavior reflect? a. Prejudice b. Stereotyping c. Assimilation d. Ethnocentrism d Correct answer- The nurse is assessing a Latino-Caribbean patient who was brought to the hospital by family members. The family reports the patient started crying, shouting, trembling, had uncontrolled jerking of the extremities, and then fell into a trance-like state. What condition does the nurse suspect? a. Bulimia nervosa b. Anorexia nervosa c. Shenjing shuairuo d. Ataque de nervios a Correct answer- A foreign language-speaking client needs to undergo chemotherapy; a signed consent form is required. What should the nurse do to explain the terms of the consent to the client? a. Seek the help of an official interpreter. b. Seek the help of the primary healthcare provider to assist the client. c. Seek help from the client's family friend who speaks the client's language. d. Seek help from the client's caregiver who speaks the same language as the client. c Correct answer- A hospice nurse is caring for a dying client and the client's family members during the developing awareness stage of grief. What is the most important thing about the family that the nurse should assess before providing care? a. Cohesiveness b. Educational level c. Cultural background d. Socioeconomic status c Correct answer- A nurse is caring for an adult client who immigrated to this country 5 years ago. What does the nurse know about the past experiences of clients who have immigrated to this country? a. They affect their inherited traits. b. They have little effect on their lives today. c. They are important in assessment of their values. d. They establish personal interactions throughout life. a Correct answer- When caring for a client who adheres to a kosher diet, which important thing should the nurse make sure to exclude from the client's meals? a. Pork and shellfish b. Blood-containing food c. All meat, fish, and poultry d. Animal and dairy products during Lent d Correct answer- A recent immigrant from mainland China is critically ill and dying. What question should the nurse ask when collecting information to meet the emotional needs of this client? a. "Do you like living in this country?" b. "When did you come to this country?" c. "Is there a family member who can translate for you?" d. "Which family member do you prefer to receive information?" a Correct answer- A client says "Do not cut the thread on my wrist before sending me for surgery because the thread is a blessing from God." Which internal variable influences the client's health belief in this scenario? a. Spiritual factors b. Emotional factors c. Developmental stage factors d. Intellectual background factor b Correct answer- A pregnant client states, "Abortion is banned in our community because it interferes with God's creative work." According to the nurse, which variable influences the client's health belief? a. Emotional factors b. Cultural background c. Socioeconomic factors d. Perception of functioning d Correct answer- A school nurse works with adolescents who recently immigrated to the U.S. and are adjusting to life in the public schools. What characteristics help the nurse differentiate students who are assimilating from students who are acculturating? a. Students who acculturate shun all aspects of their new culture. b. Students who assimilate are generally unhappy in their new culture. c. Students who acculturate tend to be more social in their new culture. d. Students who assimilate abandon all aspects of their original culture. c Correct answer- A nurse is helping a client who observes the traditional Jewish dietary laws to prepare a dietary menu. What considerations should the nurse make? a. Eating beef and veal is prohibited. b. Consumption of fish with scales is forbidden. c. Meat and milk at the same meal are forbidden. d. Consuming alcohol, coffee, and tea are prohibited. c Correct answer- The nurse starts a new job and recognizes that the patient population is very diverse. What action will help the nurse to provide culturally competent care? a. Read about all of the cultural groups in the local population. b. Treat all of the patients the same, regardless of their cultural background. c. Increase self-awareness of cultural identity, cultural knowledge, and potential biases. d. Attempt to remain culturally neutral while treating patients of a different culture. c Correct answer- Among which group of women are breast cancer death rates the lowest? a. Hawaiian b. Puerto Rican c. Asian American d. African American a,b,c,d Correct answer- When compared with their non-Hispanic white counterparts, which factors contribute to the health disparities Hispanic older adults face? (Select all that apply). a. Value differences b. Language barrier c. Lack of health care facility d. Inadequate health insurance e. Poor diet and nutrition a,b,e Correct answer- What statements about culturally congruent care by the student nurse are correct? (Select all that apply). a. "It is the main goal of transcultural nursing." b. "It is provided through cultural competence." c. "It is provided in accordance with set criteria." d. "It is bound to the professional health care system." e. "It depends on the patterns and needs of an individual." b Correct answer- A patient with a terminal illness is grateful for the care received in the hospital and has slowly started to come to terms with imminent death. The nurse recognizes that the patient's behavior and attitude is most consistent with which cultural group? a. German culture b. Somalian culture c. Ukrainian culture d. More secular culture d Correct answer- A patient who does not understand English requires an interpreter. Which nursing student action may exacerbate health disparities? a. The student expects the interpreter to act as the patient's advocate. b. The student expects the interpreter to have a health care background. c. The student maintains steady eye contact with the patient. d. The student talks only to the interpreter about the patient. b Correct answer- While talking with a 60-year-old patient, the nurse learns that the patient emigrated 15 years ago from China and likes to live independently away from the patient's grown children. The patient eats only Chinese foods at home. What should the nurse infer from these findings? a. The patient has undergone assimilation. b. The patient has undergone biculturalism. c. The patient has undergone acculturation. d. The patient has undergone enculturation. b Correct answer- Which instruction would be most beneficial for an aging African-American client with hypertension? a. "Check the pulse daily." b. "Have an annual urinalysis." c. "Record blood pressure weekly." d. "Visit an ophthalmologist monthly." c Correct answer- An elderly adult suffered an injury after falling down in the washroom. The primary healthcare provider performed a surgical procedure on the client and orders a blood transfusion. A family member of the client mentions that blood transfusions are not permitted in their community. What should the nurse do in order to handle the situation? a. The nurse should wait for the court's order to give blood to the client. b. The nurse should proceed with the transfusion in order to save the client's life. c. The nurse should inform the primary healthcare provider and not give blood to the client. Download to view full Test bank..